Quiz Trial - IUO Study

541

Created by

Marv

GST 111 - A

1 / 40

One of these is not a party in semi-vertical communication______________

management

workers

workers' union

students

2 / 40

Listening to enjoy a message as a form of entertainment is ________ listening

discriminative

emphatic

appreciative

critical reading

3 / 40

Sales promotions, advertisements, public enlightenment are examples of __________ communication

upward

external

vertcal

internal

4 / 40

A sense of integrity and discipline is attributable to which category of non-verbal communication?

Territoriality

Kinesics

Proxemics

Chronemics

5 / 40

Which of the following is an example of psychological barrier to communication?

hearing impairment

disillusionment

environmental noise

stuttering

6 / 40

One of these is not a quality of good writing

simplicity

economy of words

clarity

verbosity

7 / 40

What reading skill prepares you for a more detailed study of the text?

scanning

skimmimg

critical reading

extensive reading

8 / 40

Fix-up strategies include ______

reading aloud

re-reading

predicting

skimming

9 / 40

Which of the following groupings best presents the five major elements of the Communication process

The columnist, the typesetter, the editor, the channel and the public

The encoder, the message, the channel, the decoder and the feedback

The communicators, the communication environment, the atmosphere, the principal actor and the Issues at stake.

The preambles, the thematic concern of the message, the comprehension prowess and the resolution

10 / 40

Which of the following groupings best presents the five major elements of the Communication process

The columnist, the typesetter, the editor, the channel and the public

The encoder, the message, the channel, the decoder and the feedback

The communicators, the communication environment, the atmosphere, the principal actor and the Issues at stake.

The preambles, the thematic concern of the message, the comprehension prowess and the resolution

11 / 40

What are the types of listening? Except

active listening

Emphatic listening

Discriminative listening

Entertainment listening

12 / 40

The most preferred reading technique is ______________

OK4R

SQ3R

3S3R

PR4

13 / 40

"Oral communication is synonymous with non-verbal communication." True OR False?

14 / 40

____________ is synonymous with paralanguage as a category of non-verbal communication?

Haptics

Vocalics

Occulesics

Chronemics

15 / 40

Chronemics, as a category of Non-verbal communication deals with ?

Sight

Touch

Time

Place

16 / 40

Distinguish between hearing and listening______________

Hearing is passive

Hearing is active

Hearing is observing

Hearing entails paying attention

17 / 40

The modification of message in response to feedback is

a disadvantage of verbal communication

an advantage of verbal communication

a disadvantage of non-verbal communication

an advantage of non-verbal communication

18 / 40

Concentrating on a short text in order to bring out its full meaning __________________

extensive reading

critical reading

intensive reading

scanning

19 / 40

The language skills needed to produce language are___________. i. reading ii. speaking iii. listening iv. Writing

i and ii

ii and iii

ii and iv

i and iii

20 / 40

______ is the triangular communication that takes place between workers, their union and the management

union communication

semi-vertical communication

organizational communication

vertical communication

21 / 40

_____________ is not a barrier to effective listening

Physical noise

Listener's emotional problem

Cultural differences

Rapt attention

22 / 40

Which of the following options do you consider the basic difference between intra-personal communication and soliloquy?

Whereas intra-personal communication occurs within an individual, soliloquy is a direct address to a person(s) for compassion or assistance.

Whereas intra-personal communication is employed to share views or ideas with oneself through sub-vocalization, soliloquy is an incoherent self talk which is indicative of an initial stage of derangement.

Whereas intra-personal communication is a natural phenomenon in all normal humans, soliloquy is not natural but merely a dramatic device.

Whereas intra-personal communication occurs within an individual, soliloquy is mostly used to elicit information from a person during an interactive session.

23 / 40

Problems with sound articulation are associated with ___________ barrier

24 / 40

Which of the following options best expresses the uniqueness of human communication?

Ability to be patient enough to listen to, and understand the viewpoints of the other party.

Ability to create and use symbols

Ability to react and provide feedback

A blend of verbal and non-verbal approaches to communication

25 / 40

"Semantic barriers are examples of external barriers to effective communication." True OR False?

26 / 40

"Transience and tenability are features of oral communication." True OR False?

27 / 40

____ is the combination of textual clues with personal experience and knowledge to draw conclusions beyond what is explicitly stated

predicting

anticipating

synthesizing

predicting

28 / 40

When communication moves from a worker in the lower cadre to a superior, the communication is _________

upward

downward

horizontal

external

29 / 40

Exchange of views or opinions on an inter-personal communication basis is __________________

an example of informal oral communication set-up

an example of formal oral communication set-up

an example of non-verbal communication cue

an advantage of non-verbal communication cue

30 / 40

In the SQ3R technique of reading, the S stands for ___________

study

survey

synthesize

synopsis

31 / 40

A problem within a communicator is known as an ___________ barrier

internal

mechanical

environmental

organisational

32 / 40

In the grapevine, the type of communication in which an individual spreads information among a select group of people he or she trusts is known as ____________

cluster

single strand

gossip

probability

33 / 40

Which one of the following epithets does not describe the essence of communication?

phatic

expressive

interrogative

None of the above

34 / 40

_____________ is not a central task of listening.

Appreciating

Feedback

Meaning making

Getting messages

35 / 40

_______ is used by a reader to assess his or her level of understanding and to discover when a text is no longer making adequate sense

evaluating

monitoring

scanning

questioning

36 / 40

The modification of message in response to feedback is _____________

a disadvantage of verbal communication

an advantage of verbal communication

a disadvantage of non-verbal communication

an advantage of non-verbal communication

37 / 40

Which communication model is best illustrated with the "ping-pong" table tennis game?

Linear communication model

Interactional communication model

Transactional communication model

None of the above

38 / 40

Critical listening aims at ___________

analyse and judge

spot differences and recognise them

distinguish between spoken words and the non-verbal messages

understand the speaker's ideas

39 / 40

To engage in a dialogue with a text means to__________

listen

read

write

speak

40 / 40

Chronemics, as a category of Non-verbal communication deals with

Sight

Touch

Time

Place

Your score is

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CHM 111 Practice Quiz 1

1 / 40

Calculate the solubility product for lithium carbonate if 1.36g of Li₂CO₃ dissolves in 100ml of water.

2.49 x 10⁻²

2.49 x 10⁻³

6.23 x 10⁻³

6.23 x 10⁻²

2 / 40

Find the pH of a 0.01M aqueous solution of the sodium salt of the weak acid dichloroethanoic acid.

9.42

12.59

7.24

None of these

3 / 40

An atom with a high electronegativity generally has a

low electron affinity

small atomic number

large atomic radius

high ionization potential

4 / 40

All of the following are conjugate acid-base pairs EXCEPT.

H₃O⁺, OH

CH₃NH₃⁺, CH₃NH⁻

H₂HN₃⁺, NO₃

None of these

Use Henderson Hasselbalch equation

5 / 40

A buffer was prepared by mixing exactly 400cm³ of 0.6M NH₃ solution and 500cm³ of a 0.3M NH₄Cl solution. What is the pOH of this buffer, assuming that the final volume is 500cm³? Kb = 1.8 x 10⁻⁵.

4.45

9.36

9.46

4.78

6 / 40

The following partial pressures were determined for the reaction at equilibrium.

2NO + Cl₂ → 2NOCl

Partial pressure of the gases (NO = 0.65 atm, Cl₂ = 0.18 atm, NOCl = 0.15 atm)

What is K, for this reaction at the temperature the experiment was performed?

0.192 atm

0.300 atm

0.600 atm

1.28 atm

7 / 40

Calculate the solubility of silver chloride (in g/L) in a 6.5 x 10⁻³M silver nitrate solution.

3.6 x 10⁻⁶g/L

3.6 x 10⁻⁴g/L

3.4 x 10⁻⁴g/L

3.4 x 10g/L

8 / 40

The expression for the solubility product of Fe₃[PO₄]₂ is

Ksp = [Fe²⁺][PO₄³⁻]

Ksp = [3Fe²⁺][2PO₄³⁻]

Ksp = [Fe²⁺]³[PO₄³⁻]²

Ksp = [3Fe²⁺]³[2PO₄³⁻]

9 / 40

The pH of pure water at 25°C is close to

10 / 40

What is the concentration of sodium ion in a solution made by mixing 100ml of 0.10M Na₂SO₄, 100ml of 0.25M NaCl and 200ml of 0.025M Na₃PO₄ (Assume additive volumes).

0.01M

0.15M

0.12M

0.06M

11 / 40

What is the mole fraction of glucose (C₆H₁₂O₆) in a 75 wt% solution of glucose in water?

0.4167

1.389

0.2308

0.0238

12 / 40

Calculate the pH value of a solution containing 0.315g of nitric acid in 500ml of the solution.

13 / 40

Which of the following is the weakest Bronsted-Lowry acid?

H₂S₃O: Kₐ = 0.3

H₂CrO₄: Kₐ = 9.6

H₃BO₃: Kₐ = 7.3 x 10⁻¹⁰

C₆H₅OH: Kₐ = 1.0 x 10⁻¹⁰

14 / 40

Consider the reaction 4Ag + 2H₂S + O₂ → 2Ag₂S + 2H₂O. How many grams of Ag₂S could be obtained from a mixture of 0.950g Ag, 0.140g H₂S and 0.800g of O₂ [H = 1.0; O = 16.0; S = 32.0; Ag = 108].

1.03g

1.17g

1.90g

2.04g

15 / 40

What is the molar solubility of PbCl₂ in 0.020M AlCl₃? Assume that AlCl₃ gives Al³⁺ and Cl⁻ in solution. (PbCl₂: Ksp = 1.6 x 10⁻⁵)

1.3 x 10⁻³ mol/L

2.93 x 10⁻³ mol/L

4.0 x 10⁻³ mol/L

8.9 x 10⁻³ mol/L

16 / 40

Calculate the boiling point of a solution that contains 1.5g of glycerine, C₃H₈O₃ in 30g of water, Kb for H₂O is 0.52°C/m.

-100.28°C

0.28°C

128°C

100.28°C

17 / 40

Which of the following compounds can be a Lewis base?

H₂O

OH⁻

O²⁻

None of these

18 / 40

Which of the following is a buffer?

NaOH + CH₃COONA

NaOH + Na₂SO₄

K₂SO₄ + H₂SO₄

NH₄OH + CH₃COONH₄

19 / 40

A student prepared a 0.56M acetic acid solution and experimentally measured it's pH to be 2.88. Calculate the Kₐ for the acid.

1.7 x 10⁻⁵

4.0 x 10⁻⁶

2.6 x 10⁻⁶

None of these

20 / 40

Calculate the molar solubility of Al(OH)₃ in water. (Ksp = 2.0 x 10⁻³³)

5.86 x 10⁻⁹ mol/L

2.93 x 10⁻⁹ mol/L

2.00 x 10⁻¹² mol/L

3.44 x 10⁻¹² mol/L

21 / 40

Which equation correctly describes the relationship between Kp and Kc for the following reaction?

2NO₂ ↔ 2NO + O₂

Kp = Kc

Kp = 1/Kc

Kp = Kc(RT)

Kp = Kc(RT)⁻¹

22 / 40

28g of N₂ and 6g of H₂ were kept at 400°C in 1 litre vessel, the equilibrium mixture contained 27.54g of NH₃, the approximate value of Kc for the above reaction is (in mol⁻²litre²).

2.5

100

23 / 40

For the reaction N₂ + 3H₂ ↔ 2NH₃, the value of Kc would depend upon __________.

Initial concentration of the reactants

Pressure

Temperature

Time

24 / 40

According to Arrhenius. Which of the following is an acid?

BF₃

Na₂O

CO₂

N₂H₂

25 / 40

Calculate the pH value of 0.1M HCl.

26 / 40

A solution made by dissolving 5.65g of an unknown compound in exactly 110g of benzene freezes at 3.3°C. What is the molecular mass of the solute?

209

246

248

186

27 / 40

Calculate the degree of hydrolysis of 0.1M CH₃COONa at 298K. Ka = 1.8 x 10⁻⁵ and Kw = 10⁻¹⁴

7.46 x 10⁻⁵

6.74 x 10⁻⁵

7.64 x 10⁻⁵

4.76 x 10⁻⁵

28 / 40

An aqueous solution whose pH is zero is _________.

acidic

basic

neutral

amphoteric

Use Henderson-Hasselbalch equation

29 / 40

50ml of 0.2M CH₃COOH are mixed with 150ml of 0.4M CH₃COONa solution. Calculate the pH of the mixture, pKa of CH₃COONa = 4.73.

0.055

5.508

5.580

5.085

30 / 40

If the ionic product of water is 10⁻¹⁴, what is the hydrogen ion concentration of 0.1M NaOH solution?

10⁻¹³M

10⁻¹⁴M

14M

13M

acidic medium: pH = 1 - 6.9

31 / 40

Which of the following compounds could dissolve in water to give a solution with a pH of about 5?

NH₃

NaCl

HCl

KOH

32 / 40

What is the pH of 0.1M NaOH?

2.7

33 / 40

The pH of a soft drink is 3.82. Its hydrogen ion concentration, in molL⁻¹ will be?

1.96 x 10⁻²

1.96 x 10⁻³

1.5 x 10⁻⁴

1.96 x 10⁻⁴

34 / 40

What is the [H⁺] of a substance with pH of 10.6?

2.5 x 10⁻¹²

2.5 x 10⁻¹¹

2.5 x 10⁻¹⁰

2.8 x 10⁻¹²

35 / 40

The degree of ionization of a compound depends on the

size of solute

nature of solute

nature of vessel

quantity of electricity passed

36 / 40

Calculate the H₃O⁺ ion concentration in a solution that has a pH of 3.72.

9.55 x 10⁵M

3.82 x 10⁻⁴M

2.87 x 10⁴M

1.191 x 10⁻⁴M

37 / 40

The freezing point of a solution prepared by dissolving 3.0g of compound X (a non electrolyte) in 100g of water is 0.279°C, the molecular weight of compound X is ____________.

100

200

300

175

38 / 40

Calculate the molarity of concentrated trioxonitrate (V) acid if the solution is 72% HNO₃ by mass and its density 1.42g/cm³. [H = 1.0; N = 14.0; O =16.0]

11.8M

12.0M

13.6M

16.2M

39 / 40

What is the molarity of a solution made by dissolving 2.355g of sulphuric acid in water and diluting the volume to 50ml?

0.05M

0.210M

0.480M

0.33M

40 / 40

The reaction CH₄ + H₂O → CO + 3H₂ is a source of hydrogen. At 1500°C its value of K꜀ = 5.67. What is the value of Kₚ at this temperature?

1.23 x 10¹⁵ pa

1.00 x 10⁸ pa

1.68 x 10⁹ pa

None of these

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ZOO 111 from slides Practice Quiz 1

1 / 50

The zooflagellates that enzymatically convert cellulose in wood to carbohydrate lives in the ______ of termites.

2 / 50

The organism that causes tertian fever is _________.

3 / 50

The following organism has radial symmetry.

A. Coral polyp

B. Sea anemones

C. None of these

D. Option A and B

4 / 50

The type of nutrient that is made of trace element is known as _________.

A. Macronutrient

B. Minute nutrient

C. Micronutrient

D. Moderate nutrient

5 / 50

Which of the following organism is at organ level of organization?

A. Paramecium

B. Tapeworm

C. Hydra

D. Amoeba

6 / 50

The following are components of a cell EXCEPT.

A. Mitochondria

B. Ribosomes

C. Golgi apparatus

D. Tissues

7 / 50

_________ is/are composed of about 70% water.

A. Worms

B. Humans

C. Jellyfish

D. Option A and B

8 / 50

A typical neuron cell body is composed of __________.

A. Axon terminals

B. Nucleus

C. Myelin sheath

D. Axon

9 / 50

Example of the order Isoptera is

A. Butterfly

B. Moth

C. Termite

D. Millipede

10 / 50

__________ means absolutely necessary and indispensable.

11 / 50

Sponges are composed of _______ water.

A. 94%

B. 37%

C. Below 60%

D. 99%

12 / 50

A cluster of ten or fewer cells is termed _________.

A. Low cellularity

B. Hyper cellularity

C. Normal cellularity

D. Option A and C

13 / 50

Which of the following organisms are deuterostomes?

A. Reptiles

B. Mammals

C. Amphibians

D. All of the above

14 / 50

The existence of Cnidarians with two body forms is known as __________.

15 / 50

Sponges are sessile ________ feeders.

16 / 50

Mastigophora uses _______for locomotion.

17 / 50

Pyridoxine is the name for which vitamin.

A. Vitamin K

B. Vitamin B₆

C. Vitamin B₁₂

D. Vitamilk

18 / 50

The term Anthozoa means

A. Flower-like animals

B. Ant-like animals

C. Flower-loving animals

D. Ant-loving animals

19 / 50

The following are examples of connective tissue EXCEPT.

A. Muscle

B. Bone

C. Blood

D. Lymph

20 / 50

The scientific name for parasitic form of amoeba is ________.

A. Entamoeba histolytica

B. Amoeba proteus

C. Etamoeba histolytica

D. Etamoeba histolytical

21 / 50

Amoeba, paramecium and plasmodium are in _____________ level of organization.

22 / 50

The germ layers in bilateral symmetrical animals include all but ________.

A. mesoderm

B. ectoderm

C. periderm

D. endoderm

23 / 50

Hydra is a sessile asexual cnidarian so they can be called _________.

24 / 50

_________ is the term for animal like forms of mastigophora.

25 / 50

One of these is not a class of protozoans.

A. Sarcodina

B. Mastigophora

C. Sporozoa

D. None of the above

26 / 50

Choose the odd one out.

A. Sarcolemma

B. Striatoms

C. Intercalated disk

D. Nissil bodies

27 / 50

Which of the following vitamins will dissolve in a solution of fat?

A. Vitamin B₁₂

B. Vitamin D

C. Vitamin C

D. Vitamin B₂

28 / 50

There are _________ major types of tissues in animals.

A. 7

B. 4

C. 2

D. 6

29 / 50

Inorganic nutrient includes the following EXCEPT.

A. Vitamins

B. Zinc

C. Selenium

D. Iron

30 / 50

As the most diverse of all organisms, insects make up ________ of the total world organisms.

A. 50%

B. 90%

C. 30%

D. 70%

31 / 50

The junction where two neuron meet is known as a __________.

32 / 50

Muscle tissues do not possess __________.

A. straitions

B. intercalated disk

C. nucleus

D. None of the above

33 / 50

Examples of protostomes include

A. Arthropods

B. Annelids

C. None of the above

D. Option A and B

34 / 50

__________ come together to form tissues.

35 / 50

The following are examples of Arthropoda EXCEPT.

A. Horseshoe crab

B. Centipedes

C. Sea horse

D. Woodlice

36 / 50

During unfavourable conditions, protozoan ________ usually occur to preserve and also help in dispersal of the species.

A. encystment

B. migration

C. movement

D. All of the above

37 / 50

Nervous tissue provide rapid internal communication by transmitting _______ impulses.

38 / 50

_________ usually acts as coenzymes and cofactors in the body.

39 / 50

Example of hymenoptera is ________.

A. Bee

B. Weevil

C. Beetle

D. Centipede

40 / 50

The following are examples of Coleoptera EXCEPT.

A. Beetles

B. Fireflies

C. May fly

D. Weevil

41 / 50

Communication in insecta is by __________.

A. Squeaking

B. Shouting

C. Pheromones

D. Buzzing

42 / 50

The functions of body water includes all EXCEPT.

A. Forms saliva and mucus

B. Lubricates joints

C. Cushions the brain

D. None of the above

43 / 50

The term give to the type of asexual reproduction of forming an embryo from one gamete is called __________.

44 / 50

A beetle has ________ symmetry.

A. No symmetry

B. Radial

C. Multiple

D. Bilateral

45 / 50

The basal laminal of epithelial tissue has which of the following function(s).

A. Anchors the epithelium

B. Covers the epithelium

C. Supports the epithelium

D. Option A and C

46 / 50

Hyper cellularity of bone marrow is _________.

A. more than 90%

B. 70% and above

C. less than 70%

D. 30% and below

47 / 50

Water soluble vitamin include ________.

A. Vitamin A

B. Vitamin B

C. Vitamin K

D. Vitamin E

48 / 50

The sponge class Hexactinellida have _______ skeleton.

49 / 50

____________ convert solar energy to chemical energy for propagation.

50 / 50

Reproduction in protozoa may be __________.

A. sexual and asexual

B. sexual only

C. asexual only

D. sexual or asexual

Your score is

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BOT 111 Course notes for 2022/23 Practice Quiz 1

1 / 50

One of the following is not a classification of viruses based on mode of transmission.

Airborne infections

zoonoses

Fecal route

Eye contact

2 / 50

__________ of the genetic material of a virus occurs when the virus takes control of the host's cell synthetic machinery.

Re-combination

Degeneration

Replication

Mutation

3 / 50

Growth (increase in size) occurs in viruses.

True

False

4 / 50

_____________ can be used to preserve water since it can eliminate germs.

Bacteriophage

Ebola

SARS

AIDS

5 / 50

The host in a parasitic association benefits from the association.

False

True

6 / 50

A virus that infects and possibly destroys bacterial cells is known as a/an ________

Viroid

Bacteriophage

Viroin

Antibody

7 / 50

The following are types of heterotrophic nutrition EXCEPT.

Saprobiontic nutrition

Extracellular nutrition

Mutualistic nutrition

Holozoic nutrition

Parasitic nutrition

8 / 50

Fusion of host cells into multinucleated infected forms is referred to as ________

9 / 50

Sulphur bacteria contains ______ which traps the energy of the sun but uses hydrogen sulphide as the _______ donor during photosynthesis.

bacteriochlorophyll, hydrogen

sulphur, bacteriochlorophyll

hydrogen, bacteriochlorophyll

bacteriochlorophyll, sulphur

10 / 50

Botany is the scientific study of _____________

11 / 50

__________ do not retain a permanent shoot above ground.

Trees

Herbaceous biennials

Herbaceous perennials

Climbers

12 / 50

Viruses can be classified based on the following EXCEPT.

Phenotypic characteristics, core content and chemical composition

Capsid structure, size and shape

Modesof replication

Growth rate, presence of DNA and self-replication

13 / 50

Prions are composed of

Proteins

Carcinogens

Carbs

Lipids

14 / 50

Viruses are prokaryotes organisms.

False

True

15 / 50

__________ develop a new shoot bearing flowers and fruits during favourable growth periods while during unfavourable periods the plant body remains dormant.

Trees

Herbaceous perennials

Herbaceous biennials

Climbers

16 / 50

____________ is an example of bacteria.

Protozoa

Methanogens

Yeast molds

Escherichia coli

17 / 50

Organisms that are not composed of cells are __________.

Eukaryotes

Prokaryotes

Acellular

Multicellular

18 / 50

Most chemotrophs or chemosynthetic organisms are _________.

Bacteria

Viruses

Echinoderms

Protozoans

19 / 50

__________ are organisms which depend on and use organic materials made by autotrophs as their source of carbon and energy.

Photoautotrophs

Photoheterotrophs

Chemoheterotrophs

Chemoautotrophs

20 / 50

Holozoic nutrition is the type of nutrition that occurs in _________.

Bacteria

Animals

Fungi

Plants

21 / 50

Hyphae interweave to form mats called ____________

22 / 50

____________ oxidizes inorganic hydrogen sulphide and convert carbon dioxide into carbohydrate.

Rhodospirillum

Rhodobacter

Cyanobacteria

Sulphur bacteria

23 / 50

_________ are woody plants whose branches remain close to the ground.

Climbers

Shrubs

Creepers

Trees

24 / 50

Lytic infection is the method used by the majority of viruses to _________.

25 / 50

______________ are eukaryotic organisms that live at the expense of their host.

Saprophyte

Commensal

Parasites

Earthworm

26 / 50

Anton van Leeuwenhoek was a __________ biologists.

Dutch

German

Spanish

French

27 / 50

The American biologist David Baltimore in the 1970s invented the _______ classification system.

28 / 50

Fungi that can assume both yeast and hyphae/mycelial forms, growing as yeast at human temperature (37° C) and filamentous form at room temperature (22° C) are known as

Monomorphic

Polymorphic

Dimorphic

Bimorphic

29 / 50

Insect virus is a virus that infect ___________.

30 / 50

Yeast forms hyphae or mycelia

False

True

31 / 50

Bacteriophage and HIV belong to the family ______ and genus virus

picornavirus

adenovirus

poxvirus

viridae

32 / 50

The following are single-stranded DNA viruses EXCEPT

Adenovirus

Nanaviridae

Parvovirus

Picornavirus

33 / 50

Which of the following is not an example of a protist?

algae

Protozoa

Yeast mold

Slime mold

34 / 50

Saprophytes or saprobionts are chemoautotrophs that can undergo extracellular digestion of food before absorption.

False

True

35 / 50

Bacteria are classified as prokaryotes.

True

False

36 / 50

The protective protein coat surrounding the virus is called the ___________.

37 / 50

Which of the following statement is incorrect?

Parasites are not in a symbiotic relationship with their host.

In commensalism, one organism benefits while the other neither benefits nor is harmed

In mutualism, both organisms in the association benefit.

In parasitism, one organism benefits while the host may be harmed.

38 / 50

The term virus was coined by the Dutch biologist _________

Martinus Willem Beijerinck

Zacharias Janssea

Anton van Leeuwenhoek

Theunis Piersma

All of the following are animal viruses except one

39 / 50

Pick the odd one out

Influenza virus

Rabies virus

Mumps virus

Tobacco mosaic virus

40 / 50

Living organisms do not depend on external sources of energy to be able to fuel the chemical activities to carry out life activities.

False

True

41 / 50

Animals that feed on plants are __________.

42 / 50

Pick the correct size range of viruses.

10-30nm

30-50nm

70-90nm

50-70nm

43 / 50

Fungi are heterotrophic eukaryotes that obtain nutrients through absorption.

False

True

44 / 50

Pick the odd one out

Influenza virus

Rabies virus

Mumps virus

Tobacco mosaic virus

45 / 50

HIV infects

B lymphocytes

Macrophages

Eosinophils

T lymphocytes

46 / 50

_________ complete their life cycle in two years or growing seasons.

Trees

Herbaceous perennials

Herbaceous biennials

Climbers

47 / 50

Satellites are acellular microbes. True and False

True

False

48 / 50

Anton van Leeuwenhoek described what he saw under the microscope as wee beasties and __________

little animals

animalcules

animalucules

animalcuels

49 / 50

Animals that feed on other animals are ________.

50 / 50

Viruses are considered as animals. True and False

False

True

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Force Quiz 2

1 / 15

What will happen if two people push a stationary object with equal force in opposite directions?

The object will move in the direction of one of the forces.

The object will move at a constant velocity

The object will remain stationary

The object will accelerate in the direction of one of the forces

If two equal forces are applied in opposite directions, they cancel each other out, resulting in no net force. According to Newton’s First Law, the object will remain stationary if there is no net force acting on it.

2 / 15

A 2 kg object is acted on by a force of 12 N. What is the object’s acceleration?

4 m/s²

6 m/s²

8 m/s²

12 m/s²

Using Newton's Second Law $F = ma$ , we can rearrange for . Substituting the values, $a = 12 N /2 kg = 6 m/s^{²}$ .

3 / 15

Which of the following statements is true according to Newton’s Second Law of Motion?

Force is inversely proportional to mass when acceleration is constant

Acceleration is inversely proportional to force when mass is constant.

Force is inversely proportional to mass when acceleration is constant

Mass is inversely proportional to acceleration when force is constant

According to Newton’s Second Law $F = ma$ , if force is constant, mass and acceleration are inversely proportional. As mass increases, acceleration decreases, and vice versa.

4 / 15

A car traveling at a constant speed suddenly encounters a rough patch of road with high friction. According to Newton’s First Law, what should happen?

The car will stop immediately

The car will continue moving at a constant speed

The car will slow down due to the force of friction

The car will accelerate faster on the rough patch

Newton’s First Law states that an object in motion stays in motion unless acted upon by an external force. Here, friction is the external force, which will oppose the car's motion, causing it to slow down.

5 / 15

If the same force is applied to two objects of different masses, what will happen?

Both objects will accelerate at the same rate

The object with the larger mass will accelerate more

The object with the smaller mass will accelerate more

Neither object will accelerate

According to Newton’s Second Law $F = ma$ , acceleration is inversely proportional to mass if force is constant. Therefore, the object with the smaller mass will have a greater acceleration when the same force is applied.

6 / 15

Which of the following best demonstrates Newton's Third Law?

A person standing still on the ground

A rocket pushing exhaust gases downward to lift off

A car slowing down on a hill due to gravity

A ball rolling down a slope

Newton's Third Law states that for every action, there is an equal and opposite reaction. In the case of a rocket, it expels exhaust gases downward, and in response, an upward force is exerted on the rocket, allowing it to lift off.

7 / 15

Which statement best describes an object in equilibrium?

It is at rest with a net force acting on it

It is moving at constant velocity with zero net force

It is accelerating due to a net force

It has multiple forces acting on it in the same direction

An object is in equilibrium when there is no net force acting on it. This can occur either when it is at rest or moving at a constant velocity.

8 / 15

A car has a mass of 1000 kg and is accelerating at 3 m/s². What is the force required to achieve this acceleration?

1000 N

3000 N

1500 N

500 N

Using Newton’s Second Law , we substitute the values:

9 / 15

If two objects interact, the forces they exert on each other are equal in magnitude and opposite in direction. Which of Newton's Laws does this describe?

Newton's First Law

Newton's Second Law

Newton's Third Law

Law of Conservation of Energy

This describes Newton’s Third Law, which states that for every action, there is an equal and opposite reaction. The forces two objects exert on each other are always equal and opposite.

10 / 15

A 10 kg object is acted upon by a net force of 50 N. What is its acceleration?

2 m/s²

5 m/s²

0.5 m/s²

10 m/s²

According to Newton's Second Law, $F = ma$ .

Rearranging, .

So,

11 / 15

Why does a ball thrown into the air eventually come down, according to Newton’s laws?

There is no force acting on it after it leaves the hand

The force of gravity acts on it, causing it to accelerate downward

Newton's First Law stops applying once the ball leaves the hand

Air resistance is stronger than gravity, pulling it down

According to Newton's First Law, an object in motion will stay in motion unless acted upon by an external force. Gravity is that force acting on the ball, pulling it down and causing it to accelerate towards the Earth.

12 / 15

A 5 kg object is accelerating at 4 m/s². According to Newton's Second Law, what is the net force acting on the object?

20 N

25 N

10 N

30 N

Using Newton's Second Law $F = ma$ , we substitute the values: . Therefore, the net force acting on the object is 20 N.

13 / 15

If a car exerts a force of 3000 N on the road backwards, which of the following correctly describes the reaction force according to Newton's Third Law?

The car moves backward with 3000 N of force

The car applies 3000 N of force to the driver

The road exerts a 3000 N force forward on the car

The car experiences 3000 N of force in all directions

Newton's Third Law of Motion states that for every action, there is an equal and opposite reaction. When the car exerts a force backward on the road, the road exerts an equal force of 3000 N forward on the car, propelling it forward.

14 / 15

According to Newton’s Second Law of Motion, what will happen to an object with a constant mass if the force applied to it is doubled?

Its acceleration will be halved

Its acceleration will double

Its velocity will be cut in half

Its velocity will double

Newton’s Second Law states that $F = ma$ (force equals mass times acceleration). If the mass is constant and the force is doubled, the acceleration must also double to maintain the equation’s balance.

15 / 15

Which of the following best describes Newton's First Law of Motion?

Objects in motion will stay in motion unless acted upon by a force

Force is equal to mass times acceleration

For every action, there is an equal and opposite reaction

The force of gravity depends on the mass of the objects

Newton's First Law, also known as the Law of Inertia, states that an object at rest will stay at rest, and an object in motion will stay in motion with the same speed and direction unless acted upon by an unbalanced external force.

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Set Theory Quiz 1

1 / 15

Given a universal set $U = {a, b, c, d, e}$ and , what is the complement of in $U$ , denoted ?

{d, e}

{a, b, c}

{b, c, d}

{a, b, d}

The complement of $T$ includes all elements in $U$ that are not in $T$ . Since , the elements not in are $b$ , $c$ , and $d$ , so .

2 / 15

If and , what is ?

{1, 2, 3}

∅

{1, 1, 2, 2, 3, 3}

{1, 2}

The union contains all unique elements from both sets. Since and $S$ are identical,

3 / 15

If and , which of the following statements is true?

P ∩ Q = ∅

P = Q

P ⊂ Q

Q ⊂ P

Since every element of $P$ (i.e., $a$ and ) is also in $Q$ , $P$ is a subset of $Q$ , denoted . Option $a$ is incorrect because $Q$ has additional elements $c$ and $d$ .

4 / 15

What is the intersection of and ?

{1, 4}

{2, 7}

{1, 2, 3, 5, 7}

{3, 5}

The intersection of two sets, , includes only elements that are in both sets. Since 3 and 5 are the only elements common to both $M$ and $N$ , .

5 / 15

If , what is $K$ ?

{2, 4, 6, 8}

{0, 2, 4, 6, 8}

{2, 4, 6, 8, 10}

{1, 3, 5, 7, 9}

The set $K$ includes all even numbers less than 10. Therefore, . Option $b$ includes 10, which is not less than 10, and option $d$ includes 0, which is not specified in the set definition.

6 / 15

What is the Cartesian product of and ?

{1, a, b}

{(a, b), (b, a)}

{(1, a), (1, b)}

{1, (a, b)}

The Cartesian product of two sets $I$ and $J$ is the set of all ordered pairs where the first element is from and the second from $J$ . Here, .

7 / 15

The universal set $U$ contains , and . What is the complement of $A$ , denoted ?

{a}

{a, b}

{c, d}

{b}

The complement of a set $A$ , denoted , consists of all elements in the universal set $U$ that are not in $A$ . Since and , the complement .

8 / 15

If and , what is ?

{1}

{3}

{2, 3}

{1, 2}

The difference $A - B$ includes elements in $A$ that are not in $B$ . Since and , the element 1 is in $A$ but not in $B$ , so .

9 / 15

Which of the following is the empty set?

∅

{∅}

{1, 2, 3}

{0}

The empty set, symbolized by $\emptyset$ , is the set that contains no elements. ${0}$ is not empty; it has the element 0. Likewise, contains one element, which is the empty set itself.

10 / 15

What is the cardinality of the set ?

The cardinality of a set is the number of elements in it. Since has four elements, its cardinality is 4.

11 / 15

If and , what is ?

{2, 4, 6}

{4, 6}

{2, 8}

{8}

The intersection of two sets, , includes only the elements that both sets share. Since both and $G$ contain 4 and 6, the intersection is .

12 / 15

If and , which of the following could be $D$ ?

{1, 5}

{1, 2}

{5, 10}

{1, 2, 3, 4, 5}

Since , every element in $D$ must also be in So, could be any subset of $E$ , including and , but not sets containing elements outside $E$ , like .

13 / 15

What is the power set of ?

{∅, {a}, {b}}

{∅, {a}, {b}, {a, b}}

{{a}, {b}}

The power set of a set includes all possible subsets, including the empty set and the set itself. For , the power set is ${a, b}}$ .

14 / 15

If and $}$ , what is ?

{3}

{1,2,4,5}

{1,2,3,4,5}

{1,2,3}

The union of two sets, , includes all elements from both sets without duplication. Thus, .

15 / 15

Which of the following symbols is used to denote that an element belongs to a set?

∪

∈

∩

⊂

The symbol $\in$ is used to show that an element is part of a set. For example, if , it means is an element of set .

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